April 26th 2015 So I came across this interesting article ...
We all know the kind of hooliganism that occurs in soccer matches
not only in Europe but other parts of the world as well. This has
been an issue that has plagued the sport for years. Over zealous fans
causing problems depending on the outcome of in game calls, and
events, but also how the game ended.
I have to question the validity of the organizations when measures directly meant to combat hooliganism is seen as an “imposing” legal precedence that a nation has the right to control it's own citizens. If UEFA and FIFA claim to be the sole implementer of anti-hooligan measures, does that mean that instead of having the various police forces of nations playing soccer, shouldn't the organizations completely foot not only the enforcement costs but compensation for damages? After all, if local LEO's are supposed to maintain order during soccer riots, but nations cannot impose punishment for people who riot, then who is responsible for the injuries, damages and potentionally loss of life? Seems to me there is only two organizations responsible, so perhaps during the next mass riot at a European soccer game the injured should initiate a law suit for UEFA and FIFA being unable to protect them and deal with the riots?
Dimitrios Simitas |
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